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IMPORTANT im dumb please help. :)Reply
Justin: The 1 in 2,432 are the odds of winning that particular prize. Think of it as a measure of how difficult it is to win. The 1 does not have anything to do with the numbers that you match, it is merely the manner in which the odds of winning that particular prize are expressed. It's like flipping a coin: there are two possible outcomes (heads or tails), so each time you flip the coin, your odds are 1 in 2 of getting heads. The 1 in that equation does not have anything to do with m
Feb 2, 2005, 11:03 am - Todd - Pick 5 Forum

The Odds Debate
I have been recently thinking about this subject and remember some people saying before that if you buy two tickets for a drawing you don't cut your odds from 1 in 135 million to 1 in 67.5 million. How don't you. If picked 5 number for the white balls in either MM or PB and had every single Mega or Power Ball with it your odds would be one in how many different combos there are for the first five balls which is around 1 in 2.8 million. So buying 52 (for mega millions) tickets you cut your odd
Dec 26, 2004, 1:42 pm - Bradly_60 - Jackpot Games Forum

Payout StructureReply
Quote: Originally posted by JAG331 on December 9, 2004 My question is...NY Pick 10 and CT Cash 5 both offer prizes of $300. The odds of winning $300 in the NY game are 1:7,384 while the odds in the CT game are 1:2,164. That's a big difference! I know the same story could be said about virtually every state lottery...different odds for the same prize.Why are they so different?And don't forget the cool kicker feature with CT Cash 5. I still like PA Cash 5 more than any other, big top prizes, and g
Dec 11, 2004, 2:55 am - JimmySand9 - Lottery Discussion Forum

Dumb question of the dayReply
Quote: Originally posted by JKING on August 05, 2004I'm told the odds of winning the California lottery is about 1 in 42 million. So, if I buy one ticket my odds are 42 million to one. There are thos who would say that if I bought two tickets, my odds whould be 21 million to 1, or half. Intuitively, how did I eliminate 21 million combinations? If I bout two tickets, wouldn't my odds be 41,999,998 to one, because I've only elimated to possible combinations.Your odds would be 41,999,998 totwo not
Aug 12, 2004, 8:26 pm - Zeno - Mathematics Forum

Dumb question of the dayReply
hypersoniq,I really don't want to get into another extended mathematic debate about odds with you, but I don't understand why you can't bring yourself to reduce a fraction.You are not properly reducing the odds because you want to issue a warning that people will get false hopes when they see the odds expressed as 1 in 4.2 million rather than 10 in 42 million??Since this is the Mathematics forum, and not the general discussion forum, I feel it is important to set the record straight that the odd
Aug 6, 2004, 11:30 pm - Todd - Mathematics Forum

Odds in Wheeling
I have another odds questions, for some of you gurus out there:Number of balls in the lottery n (=49)Number of numbers chosen for wheeling w (=12)Number drawn d (=6)Number hit in wheeled set h (= say 5)Let's say I used a 6/49 lottery, and I have a wheeling system of 12 numbers. What are the odds that out of the 12 I select, 5 of the 6 drawn are in my set of 12? What's the formula for this?Or generically, in a lottery of n numbers, drawing d numbers, wheeling w numbers, what are the odds of hit
May 24, 2004, 1:43 am - dragon - Mathematics Forum

A Modest ProposalReply
Quote: Originally posted by Colin F on May 23, 2004If it can be that case in the future why is it inapplicable to the past?ColinColin,I've already explained this, in a post you yourself applauded. Take a look at it again; maybe something will click for you that didn't click before: https://www.lotterypost.com/thread/87083.htmYou seem to think you've scored some kind of victory because I differentiated between odds when no coin tosses are known, and odds when the previous 5 or 6 tosses are known.
May 23, 2004, 12:05 pm - rdarmand - Lottery Systems Forum

Buying more tickets = reduced oddsReply
Quote: Originally posted by Jake649 on May 03, 2004This topic came up in another thread but the thread went off in a tangent so I decided to start a new thread devoted to the following questions.Q: Can lottery odds be reduced by buying more tickets?A: YesQ: How are the new, reduced odds calculated?A: Say that a lottery has X number of unique outcomes. Then the odds of hitting the jackpot is 1 in X. If one buys N number of tickets where no two tickets have exactly the same set of numbers, then th
May 13, 2004, 4:23 am - Guru - Lottery Discussion Forum

Buying more tickets = reduced oddsReply
I said I wasn't going to post anything else on this topic, but I must clarify the issue. Each number combination you purchase has a 1:120,000,000 chance of winning or the odds against you are 120,000,000 to 1. The purchase of 2 number combinations does not change the odds against you to 60,000,000 to 1. Probability is figured by calculating total probable cases. Comparing number of chances to probability is like apples to oranges. The number (1) in the stated odds is represented as (1) beca
May 5, 2004, 5:09 pm - wiseone2 - Lottery Discussion Forum

Question About Buckeye 5Reply
Quote: Originally posted by Platinum298 on May 03, 2004The listed odds of this game are 435,897:1. Has anyone been able to reduce these odds? I could've sworn I read a posting a while back where someone said they got it down to about 100,000:1. Is that accurate? Can anyone confirm this? I'm just wondering what the real odds are that I'm up against. Thanks.Platinum, those odds can be reduced to 1 in 108,974.But the reduction will cost you. Agree to pay 75% of what you win and I give you the
May 3, 2004, 8:37 pm - Jake649 - Lottery Discussion Forum